CCNA 4 Pretest Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

  1. When is a dial-up connection used to connect to an ISP?

    • when a cellular telephone provides the service
    • when a high-speed connection is provided over a cable TV network
    • when a satellite dish is used
    • when a regular telephone line is used
  2. Why would a network administrator use the tracert utility?

    • to determine the active TCP connections on a PC
    • to check information about a DNS name in the DNS server
    • to identify where a packet was lost or delayed on a network
    • to display the IP address, default gateway, and DNS server address for a PC
  3. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of IPv6 static route is configured in the exhibit?CCNA4_Pretest_Exam_01

    • directly attached static route
    • recursive static route
    • fully specified static route
    • floating static route
  4. Which range of link-local addresses can be assigned to an IPv6-enabled interface?​

    • FEC0::/10​
    • FDEE::/7​
    • FEBF::/10
    • FF00::/8​
  5. A high school in New York (school A) is using videoconferencing technology to establish student interactions with another high school (school B) in Russia. The videoconferencing is conducted between two end devices through the Internet. The network administrator of school A configures the end device with the IP address The administrator sends a request for the IP address for the end device in school B and the response is The administrator knows immediately that this IP will not work. Why?

    • This is a loopback address.
    • This is a link-local address.
    • This is a private IP address.
    • There is an IP address conflict.
  6. What field content is used by ICMPv6 to determine that a packet has expired?

    • TTL field
    • CRC field
    • Hop Limit field
    • Time Exceeded field
  7. What is the subnet address for the address 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12AB::1/64?

    • 2001:DB8:BC15::0
    • 2001:DB8:BC15:A::0
    • 2001:DB8:BC15:A:1::1
    • 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12::0
  8. Which two conditions would cause a router to drop a packet? (Choose two.)

    • No inbound ACL exists on the interface where the packet enters the router.
    • The ACL that is affecting the packet does not contain at least one deny ACE.
    • The packet source address does not match the source as permitted in a standard inbound ACE.
    • No outbound ACL exists on the interface where the packet exits the router.
    • No routing table entry exists for the packet destination, but the packet matches a permitted address in an outbound ACL.
  9. Which definition describes a supernet route?

    • a route that has a subnet mask equal to that of the classful mask
    • a network address with a mask less than the classful mask
    • a static route with the address
    • a default route with a local exit interface
  10. Refer to the exhibit. Which route or routes will be advertised to the router ISP if autosummarization is enabled?​CCNA4_Pretest_Exam_07

  11. Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?

    • the destination MAC address and the incoming port
    • the destination MAC address and the outgoing port
    • the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port
    • the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port
    • the source MAC address and the incoming port
    • the source MAC address and the outgoing port
  12. What is the purpose of setting the native VLAN separate from data VLANs?

    • The native VLAN is for carrying VLAN management traffic only.
    • The security of management frames that are carried in the native VLAN can be enhanced.
    • A separate VLAN should be used to carry uncommon untagged frames to avoid bandwidth contention on data VLANs.
    • The native VLAN is for routers and switches to exchange their management information, so it should be different from data VLANs.
  13. A network contains multiple VLANs spanning multiple switches. What happens when a device in VLAN 20 sends a broadcast Ethernet frame?

    • All devices in all VLANs see the frame.
    • Devices in VLAN 20 and the management VLAN see the frame.
    • Only devices in VLAN 20 see the frame.
    • Only devices that are connected to the local switch see the frame.
  14. Which security mode is the least secure choice when a home wireless router is configured?

    • WPA
    • WPA2
    • WEP
    • WPA2-Personal
  15. Refer to the exhibit. The IPv6 access list LIMITED_ACCESS is applied on the S0/0/0 interface of R1 in the inbound direction. Which IPv6 packets from the ISP will be dropped by the ACL on R1?CCNA4_Pretest_Exam_02

    • HTTPS packets to PC1
    • ICMPv6 packets that are destined to PC1
    • packets that are destined to PC1 on port 80
    • neighbor advertisements that are received from the ISP router
  16. Refer to the exhibit. The network engineer for the company that is shown wants to use the primary ISP connection for all external connectivity. The backup ISP connection is used only if the primary ISP connection fails. Which set of commands would accomplish this goal?CCNA4_Pretest_Exam_03

    • ip route
      ip route
    • ip route
      ip route 10
    • ip route s0/0/0
      ip route s0/1/0
    • ip route s0/0/0
      ip route s0/1/0 10
  17. What is the most likely scenario in which the WAN interface of a router would be configured as a DHCP client to be assigned a dynamic IP address from an ISP?

    • There is a web server for public access on the LAN that is attached to the router.
    • The router is also the gateway for a LAN.
    • It is a SOHO or home broadband router.
    • The router is configured as a DHCP server.
  18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has attempted to implement a default route from R1 to the ISP and propagate the default route to EIGRP neighbors. Remote connectivity from the EIGRP neighbor routers to the ISP connected to R1 is failing. Based on the output from the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of the problem?CCNA4_Pretest_Exam_08

    • The command default-information originate has not been issued on R1.
    • There are no EIGRP neighbor relationships on R1.
    • The ip route command must specify a next-hop IP address instead of an exit interface when creating a default route.
    • The command redistribute static has not been issued on R1.
    • The network statement for the ISP connection has not been issued.
  19. Refer to the exhibit. Which two networks contain feasible successors? (Choose two.)CCNA4_Pretest_Exam_06

  20. Refer to the exhibit. NAT with overload is configured on router R1 and uses the NAT pool of addresses through What type of route would the ISP need in order for communication to occur between hosts in Company ABC and the Internet?CCNA4_Pretest_Exam_10

    • Because the ISP has knowledge of the directly connected network, no route is needed.
    • A static route from the ISP is needed that uses the network number and the mask
    • A default route from the ISP is needed that uses either the exit interface of S0/0/0 or the IP address.
    • A default route from the ISP is needed that uses either the exit interface of S0/0/1 or the IP address.
    • A static route from the ISP is needed that uses the network number and the mask
  21. A network administrator enters the command ipv6 router ospf 64 in global configuration mode. What is the result of this command?

    • The router will be assigned an autonomous system number of 64.
    • The router will be assigned a router ID of 64.
    • The reference bandwidth will be set to 64 Mb/s.
    • The OSPFv3 process will be assigned an ID of 64.
  22. Which three statements describe the similarities between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3? (Choose three.)

    • They both are link-state protocols.
    • They both use the exit interface address as the source address when sending OSPF messages.
    • They both share the concept of multiple areas.
    • They both support IPsec for authentication.
    • They both use the same DR/BDR election process.
    • They both have unicast routing enabled by default.
  23. Match the description to the access method. (Not all options are used.)CCNA4_Pretest_Exam_001

  24. Match each description with the corresponding TCP mechanism. (Not all options are used.)CCNA4_Pretest_Exam_003

  25. Match the description with the correct category. (Not all options are used.)CCNA4_Pretest_Exam_004

  26. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for NAT as displayed. What is wrong with the configuration?CCNA4_Pretest_Exam_04

    • Access-list 1 is misconfigured.
    • NAT-POOL2 is not bound to ACL 1.
    • Interface Fa0/0 should be identified as an outside NAT interface.
    • The NAT pool is incorrect.
  27. Which two statements about NetFlow are true? (Choose two.)

    • NetFlow can be used to create baseline documentation.
    • NetFlow can be used to collect performance indicators such as interface errors, CPU usage, and memory usage.
    • NetFlow can be used to monitor traffic statistics, including packet payload content.
    • NetFlow is a Cisco-specific feature that enables the collection of detailed traffic profiles.
    • NetFlow is a network monitoring and event reporting tool.
    • NetFlow traffic collectors use a “pull” based model to acquire traffic statistics from ports of interest.
  28. What benefit does NAT64 provide?

    • It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses.
    • It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public IPv4 address.
    • It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.
    • It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing structure from hosts on public IPv4 networks.
  29. What are three benefits of using Frame Relay for WAN connectivity? (Choose three.)

    • QoS support using the IP precedence field
    • one physical interface that can be used for several circuits
    • integrated encryption
    • mature technology
    • reasonable cost
    • seamless direct connectivity to an Ethernet LAN
  30. What is one advantage to designing networks in building block fashion for large companies?

    • failure isolation
    • increased network access time
    • coarse security control
    • fewer required physical resources
  31. What is an IPsec protocol that provides data confidentiality and authentication for IP packets?

    • CHAP
    • ESP
    • RSA
    • IKE
    • PSK
    • AP
  32. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the results of entering these commands? (Choose two.)CCNA4_Pretest_Exam_09

    • R1 will send system messages of levels 0 (emergencies) to level 4 (warnings) to a server.
    • R1 will not send critical system messages to the server until the command debug all is entered.
    • R1 will reset all the warnings to clear the log.
    • R1 will output the system messages to the local RAM.
    • The syslog server has the IPv4 address
  33. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output that is shown, what type of NAT has been implemented?CCNA4_Pretest_Exam_05

    • dynamic NAT with a pool of two public IP addresses
    • PAT using an external interface
    • static NAT with one entry
    • static NAT with a NAT pool
  34. Which type of long distance telecommunication technology provides point-to-point connections and cellular access?

    • WiMax
    • municipal Wi-Fi
    • satellite
    • mobile broadband
  35. What are two advantages of packet switching over circuit switching? (Choose two.)
    • The communication costs are lower.
    • There are fewer delays in the data communications processes.
    • Multiple pairs of nodes can communicate over the same network channel.
    • A dedicated secure circuit is established between each pair of communicating nodes.
    • A connection through the service provider network is established quickly before communications start.
  36. Which two components of a WAN would more likely be used by an ISP? (Choose two.)

    • CO
    • CPE
    • demarcation point
    • DTE
    • toll network
  37. Which two characteristics describe time-division multiplexing? (Choose two.)

    • Traffic is allocated bandwidth across a single wire based on preassigned time slots.
    • Bandwidth is allocated to channels based on whether a station has data to transmit.
    • Encoding technology provides high data throughput in a minimum RF spectrum by supporting parallel data transmission.
    • Depending on the configured Layer 2 protocol, data is transmitted across two or more channels via the use of time slots.
    • Data capacity across a single link increases as bits from multiple sources are transmitted using interleaved slices of time.
  38. What is the protocol that provides ISPs the ability to send PPP frames over DSL networks?

    • PPPoE
    • CHAP
    • PSK
    • LTE
    • PAP
  39. Fill in the blank.

    IPsec operates at the        network             layer of the OSI model.

  40. Match the characteristic to the correct PPP authentication protocol. (Not all options are used.)CCNA4_Pretest_Exam_005

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